Why or why not?
For the same reason that a mother and son cannot get a heterosexual marriage, I suppose.
The wider question, "Why can't we legalise marriage between two consenting people?"...one answer that a person might give is that marriage is intended to reflect a specific type of love, because only the union of that specific type of love contributes to social stability. For instance, the love between a mother and a son is different because they are biological family, and they recognise themselves as such. It perhaps does not have a sexual component, or whatever, but it is qualitatively different.
GLSEN has handed out graphic how to books to junior high kids
What do you mean "how to" books? At least, I don't remember ever reading any how-to books when I was in junior high, so I might be opposed to that. I'd have to think about it more, though.
As a general thing, though, sex education definitely ought to include a component about homosexuality, gay sex, etc.
How about teaching them about homosexuality at an early age without parental consent?
I'm not opposed to them teaching the existence of homosexuality - schools are meant to educate about how the world is, and so it would be intellectually dishonest for them not to teach it's existence, even if it is controversial.
What about the peer pressure ostrasization against those who oppose homosexuality by their classmates and faculty as I explained happened in CT?
As long as all their legal rights are protected, there isn't much we can do about it. I do see peer pressure against those who oppose homosexuality as being worse than those who are homosexual, though.
What effects will having two moms or two dads have on a kid?
Except that gay marriage has little to do with this...see my above arguments (1 in particular)
But the last point I want to make is the religious and historical belief that societies which tolerate it are destroyed.
See, I've heard this argument before, but it doesn't seem valid to me at all: It seems like a very very narrow analysis of history. When we look at history, we find that *most* societies are destroyed at some point. That is to say: When a society forms, the chances of it eventually being destroyed by some force (internal, external...doesn't matter) are very very high. Even the modern societies of today have largely scarecly existed over 200 years (there are a couple of exceptions) and even this is debateable: Has American society stayed the same throughout it's history? Did we encounter a shift to a "new society" after the civil war? At the beginning of the 1900s? 60s? 70s? 80s? 90s? Depending on where we draw the line, we can see that a "society" tends to come and go with surprising regularity.
Thus, I contend that this is drawing a false correlation: Yes, it is true that all societies (present day societies excluded) that were tolerant of homosexuality did pass. However, was homosexuality the CAUSE? Notice that we are excluding present day societies, but by doing so, we are by definition exluding societies that have survived. I might draw another correlation:
It is true that alll socetities (present day societies excluded) that had the letter "R" in their name did pass.
Should we change our name, then, because we have the letter "R" as well? Of course not, because nobody would seriously suggested a causal relationship between the two.
So, to find this link then, I attempted to study three societies that had varying degrees of acceptance of homosexuality: Greece, Rome, and China. When I analyse their collapse, their acceptance or lack thereof of homosexuality does not appear to factor into it: Greece collapsed first because it was too fractured wrt/ Persia and then because of the rise of Rome, Rome collapsed possibly due to economics, possibly due to a stagnant political system, possibly because Rome simply became too culturally fractured to remain one unit....China eventually collapsed due to its inability to respond to outside pressures. In my studies, I have never heard homosexuality as being seriously raised to explain the decline of these great empires.
So then I turn my attention to modern history: After all, if acceptance of homosexuality has this effect, then we ought to see it. But we don't. In one measure, the world can be divided into two camps:
1. Homosexuality is legal.
2. Homosexuality is illegal.
Those societies that tend to outlaw homosexuality tend to have a lower human development rate, lower GDP, lower economic indicators, lower political freedom, they tend to be more aggressive, and more unstable.
However, much of the world is in 1. So, we can further subdivide it into:
1. No same-sex unions.
2. Same sex unions.
We find that those in 2 (including US states) tend to have a higher GDP, higher human development, higher economic indicators, and they tend to be peaceful and stable.
How to explain this? If acceptance of homosexuality causes societies to collapse, why are we not seeing it? Why are we seeing that societies that accept homosexuality tend to be more prosperous?
In my research, it seems that there is no historical precedent for homosexuality causing societies to collapse, and there is no precedent for that today, either.
Thus, I might appreciate it if you would clarify for me what societies you are talking about, so that I may study them further?
====
Basically, I've encountered a ton of arguments, but none of them seem to particularly stack up. It may simply be because I am a debater, but to me the flaws in these arguments are glaringly obvious. Basically:
1. Gay unions cannot procreate: Again, I would argue that marriage is not about procreation, but rather about forming stable family units in society. Ultimately it would come down to seperate values: I value marriage only as a method to create family units, whereas others value marriage only as a method to create children. But then the question must be asked: Why is it that the vast majority of those who make this argument would not extend the same test to heterosexuals?
For instance, that proposal in the State of Washington to mandate children in marriage and, if after a couple of years there are none, that marriage dissolves...If marriage is about procreation, then this proposal must be affirmed. Indeed, the logical conclusion of this view is to pass a law stating that two people become married immediately and only if they have a child. Thus, there is no longer any need for marriage ceremonies or whatnot to be official: The only official act is when that baby pops out.
Why is there little to no support for this? The answer seems, to me, to be because opposition to gay unions is not truely on the basis of procreation (otherwise there would be support for these proposals), but rather due to something else.
2. Marriage throughout history has always been between a man and a woman. While this isn't true, it is true that there has been a tendency in Western history for such. However, this is a fallacy: Essentially the argument derives its motivating force from the fact that history has ordained X. That is to say, it follows the format
A) X has been common throughout history
B) Therefore X is good.
But this can be reduced to absurdity: Racism has been common throughout history. Does that therefore mean racism is good?
But an even more relevant attack can be made against this argument: Marriage throughout most of history has been a relationship of property, with the man being the owner and the woman being property. For instance, in the American colonies it was perfectly legal for a man to beat his wife. As we go further back in time, it becomes more and more different from the marriages of today: The wife was expected to be obedient in absolutely everything, because that is how God wanted it. In exchange, the man prevents her from dying. If we make an argument from history, then shall we revert to this form of marriage?
3. God sez....I'm an atheist, so this argument is never very applicable toward me. As well, there is the issue of whether we should use the state to impose your religion on others. Too, we have to call into question the morality of your God: Typically people are referring to the God of the Bible, which could be said to be rather evil. In response, usually I get the "God is the source of morality" argument, but that just doesn't mesh with the euthyphro and is-ought problems (which I won't go into here, since this thread isn't about God).
4. People are designed to have sex with people of the opposite gender, not of the same gender. While this runs into the classic is-ought problem (That is to say, the fact that people easily have sex with each other doesn't speak to how we *ought* to act), it is also incorrect: If we look at the design of humans, it appears that (at least male homosexuality) is designed for as well.
5. Gay marriages are not as stable as straight ones. The statistics I've seen have shown that they are roughtly equal, but it isn't really relevant at all: The success rate for straight marriages isn't particularly high either (and thus under this logic we ought ban it), but it isn't the place of the state to tell a couple "Well, our scientists have concluded that you have an unacceptably high chance of not actually being in love, fo we won't recognise your marriage". If two people, opposite or same sex, think their marriage will last, then they ought to give it a try.
6. Gay marriage will result in more adoptions, and therefore costs more money from society. I don't particularly see more willing homes for children as being a bad thing at all, given the state of the US and worldwide adoption system.
Those are the arguments I typically encounter in order of decreasing frequency, and yet none of them seem to hold up to examination.
So, are you able to either defend any of the above arguments, or do you have any new ones? I basically see the opposition on this issue as having no logical support.